Assuming that a woman on average has 2 kids i.e. 18 months (1.5 years) in pregnancy. Assuming the average life span of a woman as 75 years. This gives me that on an average a woman will be pregant for 2% of those 75years.

How does that lead me to the conclusion that 2% of the women population will be pregnant at any given time.

Please suggest.

Thanks

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How does the correlation between 2% of time spent in pregnancy (18 months/75 yrs of avg life) and the population that will be pregnant work? How can one extrapolate the 2% avg time spent in pregnancy to 2% popn being pregnant.

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Hi Vikas, to me it seems completely obvoius: if every woman during her life is pregnant for 2% of that lifetime, then at any given time 2% of the female population should be pregnant. I actually don't know how to put it in simpler terms. Maybe it'll help you to do the actual math (like with formulas)?

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Maybe try the same thing with school: Imagine a population of 750 people. The age distrbution is identical, so you have 10 people in very yearly cohort. Now assume that people spend 10 years in school, which is 10/75=13.33% of their lives. So there should be at any point in time 10 age cohorts of 10 people in school = 100 people. So 100 / 750 = 13.33%... Get it?

Obviously, this works for any size of population, if you assume that age distribution is spread equally among age cohorts.

i will try again. thank you for your time. i understand that it is a simple thing but i dont know what is that i have been missing that is reqrd to understand this. may be , i am finding it tough to correlate the time spent % to % of people. i appreciate yourhelp

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